← 2020 Paper 2

UPSC 2020 Maths Optional Paper 2 Q3a — Step-by-Step Solution

15 marks · Section A

Fields and finite fields · Algebra · asked 6× in 13 yrs · Read the full method →

Question

Let RR be a finite field of characteristic p(>0)p(>0). Show that the mapping f:RRf:R\to R defined by f(a)=apf(a)=a^p, aR\forall a\in R is an isomorphism.

Technique

Frobenius endomorphism; Freshman’s Dream (a+b)p=ap+bp(a+b)^p=a^p+b^p from p(pk)p\mid\binom{p}{k}; injectivity via trivial kernel of a field homomorphism; surjectivity via finiteness (pigeonhole).

Solution

Let RR be a finite field with charR=p\operatorname{char} R=p (a prime, since the characteristic of a field is 00 or prime, and here p>0p>0). We show f(a)=apf(a)=a^p is a field isomorphism RRR\to R (the Frobenius automorphism).

Step 1 — ff preserves multiplication and identity

For all a,bRa,b\in R,

f(ab)=(ab)p=apbp=f(a)f(b)f(ab)=(ab)^p=a^p b^p=f(a)f(b)

(commutativity of the field), and f(1)=1p=1f(1)=1^p=1.

Step 2 — ff preserves addition (the “Freshman’s Dream”)

By the binomial theorem in a commutative ring,

(a+b)p=k=0p(pk)akbpk.(a+b)^p=\sum_{k=0}^{p}\binom{p}{k}a^k b^{\,p-k}.

For 1kp11\le k\le p-1, the binomial coefficient (pk)=p!k!(pk)!\binom{p}{k}=\dfrac{p!}{k!\,(p-k)!} is divisible by pp: indeed pp!p\mid p! and pk!p\nmid k!, p(pk)!p\nmid(p-k)! since pp is prime and k,pk<pk,p-k<p. So (pk)0\binom{p}{k}\equiv 0 in a ring of characteristic pp, killing all middle terms. Hence

f(a+b)=(a+b)p=ap+bp=f(a)+f(b).f(a+b)=(a+b)^p=a^p+b^p=f(a)+f(b).

Together with Step 1, ff is a ring homomorphism of RR into itself fixing 11.

Step 3 — ff is injective

ff is a nonzero homomorphism of a field RR. Its kernel kerf\ker f is an ideal of the field RR; the only ideals of a field are {0}\{0\} and RR. Since f(1)=10f(1)=1\ne 0, kerfR\ker f\ne R, so kerf={0}\ker f=\{0\}. Thus ff is injective.

(Equivalently: ap=0a=0a^p=0\Rightarrow a=0 because a field has no nonzero nilpotents/zero-divisors.)

Step 4 — ff is surjective (uses finiteness)

RR is finite, and f:RRf:R\to R is an injective map from a finite set to itself. An injective self-map of a finite set is automatically surjective (pigeonhole). Hence ff is bijective.

Step 5 — Conclusion

ff is a bijective ring homomorphism RRR\to R preserving +,,1+,\,\cdot,\,1, i.e. a field isomorphism (in fact an automorphism of RR).

Answer

  f(a)=ap is a field automorphism of R (the Frobenius automorphism).  \boxed{\;f(a)=a^p\text{ is a field automorphism of }R\ (\text{the Frobenius automorphism}).\;}
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