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UPSC 2021 Maths Optional Paper 2 Q4b — Step-by-Step Solution

20 marks · Section A

Contour integration of real integrals using residues · Complex Analysis · asked 9× in 13 yrs · Read the full method →

Question

Using contour integration, evaluate sinxx(x2+a2)dx\int_{-\infty}^\infty\dfrac{\sin x}{x(x^2+a^2)}\,dx, a>0a>0.

Technique

Indented contour to handle 1/x1/x at origin; residue at iaia in upper half-plane; small-semicircle contribution = πiRes-\pi i\cdot\text{Res} at simple pole.

Solution

Strategy. sinx=eix\sin x=\Im e^{ix}. Consider Ceizz(z2+a2)dz\displaystyle\int_C\dfrac{e^{iz}}{z(z^2+a^2)}\,dz on contour avoiding pole at z=0z=0 (semicircular indent).

Step 1 — Contour setup

C=C= real axis from R-R to ϵ-\epsilon, small semicircle (above) from ϵ-\epsilon to ϵ\epsilon, real axis from ϵ\epsilon to RR, large semicircle (above) from RR back to R-R.

Poles of integrand f(z)=eizz(z2+a2)=eizz(zia)(z+ia)f(z)=\dfrac{e^{iz}}{z(z^2+a^2)}=\dfrac{e^{iz}}{z(z-ia)(z+ia)}:

Step 2 — Residues

Resz=iaf=eiiaia(2ia)=ea2a2\text{Res}_{z=ia}f=\dfrac{e^{i\cdot ia}}{ia\cdot(2ia)}=\dfrac{e^{-a}}{-2a^2}.

Resz=0f=e0(0ia)(0+ia)=1a2\text{Res}_{z=0}f=\dfrac{e^0}{(0-ia)(0+ia)}=\dfrac{1}{a^2}.

Step 3 — Apply residue theorem with indentation

Cfdz=Rϵ+small+ϵR+large=2πiResz=iaf\int_C f\,dz=\int_{-R}^{-\epsilon}+\int_{\text{small}}+\int_{\epsilon}^R+\int_{\text{large}}=2\pi i\cdot\text{Res}_{z=ia}f.

Large semicircle: by Jordan’s lemma, 0\to 0 as RR\to\infty.

Small semicircle around z=0z=0: classical result: the integral along a small semicircle of radius ϵ\epsilon around a simple pole, in the upper half-plane (going CCW from ϵ-\epsilon to ϵ\epsilon, passing through ϵeiπ/2\epsilon e^{i\pi/2}\cdot wait the standard indented contour goes above the singularity, traversing θ=π0\theta=\pi\to 0):

The small semicircle traversed from ϵ-\epsilon to +ϵ+\epsilon in upper half-plane means θ\theta goes from π\pi to 00 (clockwise as viewed). So the integral contributes πiResz=0f=πi1/a2-\pi i\cdot\text{Res}_{z=0}f=-\pi i\cdot 1/a^2.

Step 4 — Combine

f(x)dxπi/a2+0=2πiea/(2a2)=πiea/a2\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x)\,dx-\pi i/a^2+0=2\pi i\cdot e^{-a}/(-2a^2)=-\pi i e^{-a}/a^2.

So f(x)dx=πi/a2πiea/a2=πi(1ea)a2\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x)\,dx=\pi i/a^2-\pi i e^{-a}/a^2=\dfrac{\pi i(1-e^{-a})}{a^2}.

Step 5 — Take imaginary part

sinxx(x2+a2)dx= ⁣[πi(1ea)a2]=π(1ea)a2\int_{-\infty}^\infty\dfrac{\sin x}{x(x^2+a^2)}\,dx=\Im\!\left[\dfrac{\pi i(1-e^{-a})}{a^2}\right]=\dfrac{\pi(1-e^{-a})}{a^2}.

Answer

  sinxx(x2+a2)dx=π(1ea)a2.  \boxed{\;\int_{-\infty}^\infty\dfrac{\sin x}{x(x^2+a^2)}\,dx=\dfrac{\pi(1-e^{-a})}{a^2}.\;}
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