← 2014 Paper 2
UPSC 2014 Maths Optional Paper 2 Q2b — Step-by-Step Solution 15 marks · Section A
Riemann integral · Real Analysis · asked 10× in 13 yrs · Read the full method →
Question
Integrate ∫ 0 1 f ( x ) d x \displaystyle\int_0^1 f(x)\,dx ∫ 0 1 f ( x ) d x , where
f ( x ) = { 2 x sin 1 x − cos 1 x , x ∈ ( 0 , 1 ] 0 , x = 0 . f(x)=\begin{cases}2x\sin\dfrac{1}{x}-\cos\dfrac{1}{x},& x\in(0,1]\\ 0,& x=0\end{cases}. f ( x ) = ⎩ ⎨ ⎧ 2 x sin x 1 − cos x 1 , 0 , x ∈ ( 0 , 1 ] x = 0 .
Technique
Antiderivative spotting via reverse product rule; FTC with one-sided limit at the singular endpoint.
Solution
Strategy. Recognise the integrand as the derivative of x 2 sin ( 1 / x ) x^{2}\sin(1/x) x 2 sin ( 1/ x ) , then apply FTC with care at the boundary x = 0 x=0 x = 0 .
Step 1 — Spot the antiderivative
For x > 0 x>0 x > 0 ,
d d x [ x 2 sin 1 x ] = 2 x sin 1 x + x 2 cos 1 x ⋅ ( − 1 x 2 ) = 2 x sin 1 x − cos 1 x . \frac{d}{dx}\!\left[x^{2}\sin\tfrac{1}{x}\right]=2x\sin\tfrac{1}{x}+x^{2}\cos\tfrac{1}{x}\cdot\!\left(-\tfrac{1}{x^{2}}\right)=2x\sin\tfrac{1}{x}-\cos\tfrac{1}{x}. d x d [ x 2 sin x 1 ] = 2 x sin x 1 + x 2 cos x 1 ⋅ ( − x 2 1 ) = 2 x sin x 1 − cos x 1 .
So the integrand equals F ′ ( x ) F'(x) F ′ ( x ) where F ( x ) = x 2 sin ( 1 / x ) F(x)=x^{2}\sin(1/x) F ( x ) = x 2 sin ( 1/ x ) on ( 0 , 1 ] (0,1] ( 0 , 1 ] .
Step 2 — Extend F F F continuously to [ 0 , 1 ] [0,1] [ 0 , 1 ]
lim x → 0 + x 2 sin ( 1 / x ) = 0 \lim_{x\to 0^{+}}x^{2}\sin(1/x)=0 lim x → 0 + x 2 sin ( 1/ x ) = 0 (since ∣ x 2 sin ( 1 / x ) ∣ ≤ x 2 → 0 |x^{2}\sin(1/x)|\le x^{2}\to 0 ∣ x 2 sin ( 1/ x ) ∣ ≤ x 2 → 0 ).
So define F ( 0 ) = 0 F(0)=0 F ( 0 ) = 0 ; F F F is continuous on [ 0 , 1 ] [0,1] [ 0 , 1 ] . (F F F is not differentiable at 0 0 0 , but the FTC limit form still works.)
Step 3 — Boundedness and integrability
The integrand f ( x ) f(x) f ( x ) is bounded on ( 0 , 1 ] (0,1] ( 0 , 1 ] : ∣ 2 x sin ( 1 / x ) ∣ ≤ 2 |2x\sin(1/x)|\le 2 ∣2 x sin ( 1/ x ) ∣ ≤ 2 , ∣ cos ( 1 / x ) ∣ ≤ 1 |\cos(1/x)|\le 1 ∣ cos ( 1/ x ) ∣ ≤ 1 . With f ( 0 ) = 0 f(0)=0 f ( 0 ) = 0 , f f f is bounded on [ 0 , 1 ] [0,1] [ 0 , 1 ] with a single discontinuity at x = 0 x=0 x = 0 (measure zero). So f f f is Riemann-integrable.
Step 4 — Apply FTC on [ ε , 1 ] [\varepsilon,1] [ ε , 1 ] , take limit ε → 0 + \varepsilon\to 0^{+} ε → 0 +
For ε > 0 \varepsilon>0 ε > 0 :
∫ ε 1 f ( x ) d x = F ( 1 ) − F ( ε ) = sin 1 − ε 2 sin ( 1 / ε ) . \int_\varepsilon^{1}f(x)\,dx=F(1)-F(\varepsilon)=\sin 1-\varepsilon^{2}\sin(1/\varepsilon). ∫ ε 1 f ( x ) d x = F ( 1 ) − F ( ε ) = sin 1 − ε 2 sin ( 1/ ε ) .
Letting ε → 0 + \varepsilon\to 0^{+} ε → 0 + : the second term goes to 0 0 0 .
Answer
∫ 0 1 f ( x ) d x = sin 1. \boxed{\;\int_0^{1}f(x)\,dx=\sin 1.\;} ∫ 0 1 f ( x ) d x = sin 1.