← 2018 Paper 2

UPSC 2018 Maths Optional Paper 2 Q1d — Step-by-Step Solution

10 marks · Section A

Absolute and conditional convergence · Real Analysis · asked 4× in 13 yrs · Read the full method →

Question

Find the range of p(>0)p(>0) for which the series

1(1+a)p1(2+a)p+1(3+a)p,a>0,\frac{1}{(1+a)^p}-\frac{1}{(2+a)^p}+\frac{1}{(3+a)^p}-\cdots,\qquad a>0,

is (i) absolutely convergent and (ii) conditionally convergent.

Technique

Limit comparison / integral test for absolute convergence (pp-series threshold p>1p>1); Leibniz test for plain convergence (holds for all p>0p>0); subtract to get the conditional range.

Solution

Write the series as

n=1(1)n+1(n+a)p,a>0, p>0.\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{(n+a)^p},\qquad a>0,\ p>0.

Step 1 — Absolute convergence

The series of absolute values is

n=11(n+a)p.\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{(n+a)^p}.

Since a>0a>0 is fixed, n+ann+a\sim n as nn\to\infty, so by the limit comparison test with the pp-series 1/np\sum 1/n^p:

limn1/(n+a)p1/np=limn(nn+a)p=1(0,).\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{1/(n+a)^p}{1/n^p}=\lim_{n\to\infty}\left(\frac{n}{n+a}\right)^p=1\in(0,\infty).

Hence 1(n+a)p\sum \dfrac{1}{(n+a)^p} converges iff 1np\sum \dfrac1{n^p} converges, i.e. iff p>1p>1. (Equivalently, by the integral test, 1(x+a)pdx\int_1^\infty (x+a)^{-p}dx converges iff p>1p>1.) Therefore

absolutely convergent    p>1.\boxed{\text{absolutely convergent}\iff p>1.}

Step 2 — Convergence of the alternating series (for the conditional case)

Consider the terms bn=1(n+a)p>0b_n=\dfrac{1}{(n+a)^p}>0. For every p>0p>0 and a>0a>0:

By the Leibniz (alternating series) test, (1)n+1bn\sum(-1)^{n+1}b_n converges for every p>0p>0.

Step 3 — Conditional convergence

A series is conditionally convergent iff it converges but does not converge absolutely. By Step 2 the series converges for all p>0p>0; by Step 1 it converges absolutely iff p>1p>1. Hence it converges conditionally exactly when it converges but not absolutely:

conditionally convergent    0<p1.\boxed{\text{conditionally convergent}\iff 0<p\le 1.}

(For p>1p>1 it is absolutely convergent — not “conditionally”; for 0<p10<p\le1 it converges by Leibniz but 1/(n+a)p\sum 1/(n+a)^p diverges, so the convergence is conditional. There is no p>0p>0 for which the series diverges.)

Summary

Answer

  (i) absolute conv.: p>1;(ii) conditional conv.: 0<p1.  \boxed{\;\text{(i) absolute conv.: } p>1;\qquad \text{(ii) conditional conv.: } 0<p\le 1.\;}
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