← 2023 Paper 1

UPSC 2023 Maths Optional Paper 1 Q5d — Step-by-Step Solution

10 marks · Section B

Simple harmonic motion (free, damped, forced) · Dynamics & Statics · asked 8× in 13 yrs · Read the full method →

Question

A particle is moving under Simple Harmonic Motion of period TT about a centre OO. It passes through the point PP with velocity vv along the direction OPOP and OP=pOP=p. Find the time that elapses before the particle returns to the point PP. What will be the value of pp when the elapsed time is T2\dfrac{T}{2}?

Technique

Standard SHM kinematics. The “time to return” question reduces to finding the next tt at which x(t)x(t) matches the initial value, which yields the symmetric condition ωt+ϕ=πϕ\omega t+\phi=\pi-\phi.

Solution

Setup. SHM with period TT, angular frequency ω=2π/T\omega=2\pi/T. Position x(t)=Asin(ωt+ϕ)x(t)=A\sin(\omega t+\phi), velocity x˙=Aωcos(ωt+ϕ)\dot x=A\omega\cos(\omega t+\phi). Energy: x˙2+ω2x2=ω2A2\dot x^2+\omega^2 x^2=\omega^2 A^2.

At t=0t=0: particle at PP (x=px=p) with velocity x˙=v\dot x=v (along OPOP, i.e., outward, so v>0v>0).

Step 1 — Determine AA and ϕ\phi.

Asinϕ=p,Aωcosϕ=v.A\sin\phi=p,\quad A\omega\cos\phi=v.

Square and add: A2sin2ϕ+(vω)2cos2ϕω2/ω2A^2\sin^2\phi+\Bigl(\dfrac{v}{\omega}\Bigr)^2\cos^2\phi\cdot\omega^2/\omega^2… let me redo. From the two equations:

sinϕ=p/A,cosϕ=v/(Aω).\sin\phi=p/A,\quad \cos\phi=v/(A\omega).

Squaring and adding: 1=p2/A2+v2/(A2ω2)1=p^2/A^2+v^2/(A^2\omega^2), so A2=p2+v2/ω2A^2=p^2+v^2/\omega^2.

Also tanϕ=pω/v\tan\phi=p\omega/v (assuming ϕ(0,π/2)\phi\in(0,\pi/2) for outward motion through PP).

Step 2 — Time to return to PP.

The particle at PP moves outward to amplitude AA, then returns to PP moving inward. Set x(t)=px(t)=p:

Asin(ωt+ϕ)=p=Asinϕ.A\sin(\omega t+\phi)=p=A\sin\phi.

Solutions in one period: ωt+ϕ=ϕ\omega t+\phi=\phi (i.e., t=0t=0) or ωt+ϕ=πϕ\omega t+\phi=\pi-\phi (the next time):

ωt=π2ϕt=π2ϕω.\omega t=\pi-2\phi\Rightarrow t=\frac{\pi-2\phi}{\omega}.

Use ϕ=arctan(pω/v)\phi=\arctan(p\omega/v). Note π/2arctan(x)=arctan(1/x)\pi/2-\arctan(x)=\arctan(1/x):

t=π2arctan(pω/v)ω=2ωarctan(vpω)=Tπarctan(vpω).t=\frac{\pi-2\arctan(p\omega/v)}{\omega}=\frac{2}{\omega}\arctan\Bigl(\frac{v}{p\omega}\Bigr)=\frac{T}{\pi}\arctan\Bigl(\frac{v}{p\omega}\Bigr).   t=Tπarctan(vpω)where ω=2π/T.  \boxed{\;t=\frac{T}{\pi}\arctan\Bigl(\frac{v}{p\omega}\Bigr)\quad\text{where }\omega=2\pi/T.\;}

Step 3 — Find pp when t=T/2t=T/2.

T2=Tπarctan(vpω)arctan(vpω)=π2vpωp0\dfrac{T}{2}=\dfrac{T}{\pi}\arctan\Bigl(\dfrac{v}{p\omega}\Bigr)\Rightarrow\arctan\Bigl(\dfrac{v}{p\omega}\Bigr)=\dfrac{\pi}{2}\Rightarrow\dfrac{v}{p\omega}\to\infty\Rightarrow p\to 0.

So p=0p=0 — the particle is at the centre OO when it has velocity vv outward; from the centre, time to return is the full half-period T/2T/2 (one trip out to amplitude and back).

Answer

  p=0 when t=T/2.  \boxed{\;p=0\text{ when }t=T/2.\;}
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